A ruptured spinal AVM in a patient with migraine.

(1) Was it not a matter of pure chance that in the absence of signs suggestive of spinal involvement they undertook an MRI exploration of the whole CNS and found a spinal AVM? (2) Can they attribute the headache to the lumbar bleed and explain it on the basis of trigeminal nociceptive receptor stimulation, based on the fact that the patient was a predisposed migraineur? (3) Are they justified in suggesting extensive search for a spinal AVM in the absence of symptoms or signs of medullary or spinal root involvement?